What is the legal implication if an heir states, 'I reject this bequest for so-and-so'?

Primary text

If an heir states, 'I reject this bequest for so-and-so,' and is questioned about the intent: if they intended to transfer ownership to that specific person and single them out, and the specified heir accepts, then that individual exclusively receives it. If the speaker intended to return it to all heirs so that the specified person might be pleased, it reverts to all heirs. If some accept and others refuse, the property accrues only to those who accept it.