What is the ruling when a husband states, 'You are divorced three times, some of them are according to Sunnah,' without mentioning the rest?

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It is possible that this case is treated similarly to the preceding one, implying that the remainder must be according to innovation (Bid'ah), thus making it analogous to explicitly stating both conditions. Alternatively, only one divorce takes effect immediately, because there was no equalization between the occasions, and 'some' does not necessitate a half division; therefore, the certain single divorce is enacted, and the excess is deferred due to doubt.