What is the ruling when a man says, "My wife is divorced and my female slave is free," without specifying which wife or slave?

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If the man specified a particular wife and slave, the ruling applies only to them. If he intended one unspecified among them, the statement applies to one unspecified individual of each category. Abu al-Khattab held that all his wives are divorced and all his female slaves are freed, based on the usage of the singular form implying the whole, as seen in verses like Quran 16:18 and Quran 2:187, and because this interpretation is narrated from Ibn Abbas. However, the majority opinion is that it results in the divorce and freeing of one unspecified woman/slave. This is because the singular form is used figuratively for the plural, and the statement defaults to its literal meaning unless evidence dictates otherwise. If the possibilities are equal, the ruling must be confined to the certain instance (the singular), as anything beyond that involves doubt.