Does a wife who stipulates a financial consideration in exchange for divorce immediately secure that right upon divorce?

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If a wife stipulates a payment, such as 'Divorce me for a thousand' or 'If you divorce me, you owe me a thousand,' and the husband responds by saying, 'You are divorced,' the stipulated thousand becomes due to her. This is because his utterance is an answer to her proposition, and the request is implicitly repeated in the answer, akin to a sale negotiation where she says, 'Sell me your slave for a thousand,' and he replies, 'I sold him to you.' The right to the consideration is established immediately.