What is the validity of a marriage where the husband internally intends to divorce the wife after a set period or once his need in that location concludes, without stipulating this condition in the contract?

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The marriage is valid according to the majority of scholars. The husband's private intention does not invalidate the marriage contract, and he is not obligated to keep his wife unless she consents; otherwise, he may divorce her. Al-Awza'i dissented, considering it a marriage of temporary nature (*Mut'ah*).