Tafsir of An-Nahl 16:75

Surah An-Nahl 16:75

ﱝ ﱞ ﱟ ﱠ ﱡ ﱢ ﱣ ﱤ ﱥ ﱦ ﱧ ﱨ ﱩ ﱪ ﱫ ﱬ ﱭ ﱮ ﱯ ﱰ ﱱ ﱲ ﱳ ﱴ ﱵ ﱶ ﱷ ﱸ ﱹ ﱺ ﱻ

Allah presents an example: a slave [who is] owned and unable to do a thing and he to whom We have provided from Us good provision, so he spends from it secretly and publicly. Can they be equal? Praise to Allah! But most of them do not know.

Tafsir

Mafatih al-Ghayb

Verse range: 16:75

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Surah An-Nahl (The Bee): Verse 75

Allah strikes a parable...

Know that the Almighty has emphasized the refutation of the idolaters' doctrine through this parable. There are several issues concerning it:

Issue 1: Interpretation of this Parable

There are two main sayings regarding the interpretation of this parable:

The First Saying: It means that if we suppose a slave who is incapable of anything, and contrast him with a noble, free man who is wealthy and spends abundantly, secretly and openly, then clear reason dictates that it is not permissible to equate them in reverence and honor, even though they are equal in creation, form, and humanity. How then can a rational person equate Allah, the Capable of providing sustenance and favor, with idols that possess absolutely no power or capability?

The Second Saying: The incapable "slave" refers to the disbeliever, because by being deprived of servitude to Allah Almighty and obedience to Him, he becomes like a lowly, poor, and helpless slave. The one referred to by {And to whom We have provided from Us a good provision} is the believer, who is occupied with honoring Allah's command and showing compassion to Allah's creation. Thus, the Almighty clarifies that they are not equal in rank, honor, or closeness to Allah's pleasure.

Note: The first saying is closer [to the intended meaning], because the verses preceding and succeeding this one are concerned with establishing Monotheism (Tawhid) and refuting those who assert polytheism (Shirk). Therefore, interpreting this verse in this context is more appropriate.

Issue 2: The Meaning of {a slave, unable to do anything}

There is a difference of opinion regarding the meaning of {a slave, unable to do anything}:

The First Opinion: It refers to the idol itself, because it is a slave, evidenced by the verse: {There is none in the heavens and the earth except that he comes to the Most Merciful as a servant} [Maryam: 93]. As for it being a slave and unable to do anything, that is apparent. The phrase {And to whom We have provided from Us a good provision, and he spends thereof secretly and openly} refers to the idol worshipper, because Allah has provided him with wealth, and he spends from that wealth upon himself and his followers, secretly and openly.

If this is established, we say: They are not equal in the obvious perception of reason; rather, clear reason testifies that the capable one is in a better state and higher rank than the incapable one. Therefore, clear reason testifies that the idol worshipper is superior to that idol. How then can it be permissible to judge him as equal to the Lord of the worlds in servitude?

The Second Opinion: It refers to a specific slave. Some say he is a slave belonging to Uthman ibn Affan, and they interpret {And to whom We have provided from Us a good provision} as referring specifically to Uthman.

The Third Opinion: It is general, applying to every slave with this description and every free person with the corresponding description. This opinion is the most apparent, as it aligns with what Allah Almighty intended in this verse. And Allah knows best.

Issue 3: Juristic Implications

The jurists have used this verse as evidence that a slave does not own anything.

If they are asked: "The apparent meaning of the verse indicates that a slave is unable to do anything, so why do you claim that every slave is like that?"

We reply: This is supported by two points:

  1. It is established in the principles of jurisprudence (Usul al-Fiqh) that a ruling mentioned immediately following a relevant attribute indicates that this attribute is the effective cause (illah) for that ruling. Being a slave (abd) is an attribute implying humiliation and subjugation, and {unable to do anything} is the ruling mentioned right after it. This necessitates that the cause for being unable to do anything is being a slave, which proves the generality.
  2. Allah Almighty said afterward: {And to whom We have provided from Us a good provision}. He distinguished this second category from the first category (the slave) by the attribute of being provided sustenance. Therefore, this attribute must not apply to the slave for the distinction between the second category and the first category to hold. If the slave possessed property, Allah would have given him a good provision, because lawful ownership is a good provision, whether little or much. Thus, by these two means, it is established that the apparent meaning of the verse implies that the slave is unable to do anything and does not own anything.

They differed on the details: It is narrated from Ibn Abbas and others that they were strict in this, even saying the slave does not even possess the right of divorce. Most jurists said he possesses the right of divorce, but he does not possess wealth, nor is wealth attached to him. They differed on whether if the master gifts something to the slave, the slave owns it or not. The apparent meaning of the verse denies this.

Remaining Questions on the Verse:

Question 1: Why did He say {a slave, unable to do anything}? Every slave is a slave and incapable of independent action. Answer: Mentioning "slave" (mamluuk) serves to distinguish him from the free man, as it might be argued that the free man is also a slave of Allah. As for {unable to do anything}, it might serve to distinguish him from the mukatab (a slave contracted for manumission) or the slave permitted to trade, as both of these latter categories have some capacity for action.

Question 2: What is the meaning of man (who) in {And to whom We have provided}? Answer: The apparent meaning is that it is descriptive, as if it were said: "And a free man whom We have provided," to match the word "slave." It is also possible that it is a relative pronoun (mawsul).

Question 3: Why did He use the plural form yastawuun (are they equal)? Answer: It means: Are free men and slaves equal?

Then He said: {All praise is due to Allah}. There are several interpretations:

  1. Ibn Abbas said: Praise be to Allah for what He has done for His allies and for favoring them with Monotheism.
  2. The meaning is that all praise belongs to Allah, and none of the praise belongs to the idols, because they have conferred no favor upon anyone. And His statement {But most of them do not know} means they do not know that all praise belongs to Allah and none of it belongs to the idols.
  3. The Judge (Al-Qadi) said in the Tafsir: He commanded the Messenger (peace be upon him) to say, {Say: All praise is due to Allah}. It is also possible that this is an address to the one whom Allah has provided with a good provision, that he should say: All praise is due to Allah for distinguishing him in this capability from that weak slave.
  4. It is possible that what is meant is that after the Almighty mentioned this parable, and since it is a parable perfectly matching the purpose and revealing the intended meaning, He followed it with {All praise is due to Allah}, meaning, praise be to Allah for the strength of this argument and the clarity of this evidence. Then He said: {But most of them do not know}, meaning, despite its utmost clarity and ultimate obviousness, these misguided people neither know nor comprehend it.

76. And Allah strikes a parable of two men: one of them We have provided with two gardens of grapevines and surrounded them with palm trees and placed between them [fields of] crops. Each of the two gardens yielded its produce and did not fall short thereof in anything, and We caused to flow between them a river.