ﱔ ﱕ ﱖ ﱗ ﱘ ﱙ ﱚ ﱛ
And is this a favor of which you remind me - that you have enslaved the Children of Israel?"
ﱔ ﱕ ﱖ ﱗ ﱘ ﱙ ﱚ ﱛ
And is this a favor of which you remind me - that you have enslaved the Children of Israel?"
Tafsir
Verse range: 26:20-22
He said, "Did you do that when you were one of the misguided?"
Know that when Pharaoh mentioned the upbringing (of Moses) and mentioned the killing, and since his upbringing of Moses was well-known and apparent, it is no wonder that Moses (peace be upon him) did not deny it, nor did he engage in answering it. This is because it is established in the intellect that when a messenger is sent to someone, and he possesses a miracle and a proof, his situation is not altered by whether the recipient of the message has favored him or not. Thus, Pharaoh's statement had absolutely no effect. It was better to ignore such talk.
However, Moses answered the accusation of killing with a statement that could not be more eloquent in its response: {Did you do that when you were one of the misguided?}
What is meant by "the misguided" (الضالين) here is those who were heedless of the consequence of the killing. This is because the striking was done as a form of discipline, and such an act might sometimes be deemed acceptable even if it led to death. He clarified that he did it in a manner that should not warrant him being held accountable, or being counted as an unbeliever or ungrateful for Pharaoh's favor.
As for His statement: {So I fled from you when I feared you}, the meaning is that I committed that act while being oblivious to the fact that it would be fatal, and it was done by me as if by mistake (في حكم السهو). Therefore, I did not deserve the fear that necessitates flight. Nevertheless, I fled from you when you said: {Indeed, the chiefs are plotting to kill you} (Al-Qasas: 20). By this, he indicated that Pharaoh had no favor upon him regarding that action; rather, Pharaoh was closer to being an evildoer toward him by instilling a fear that caused him to flee.
Then, he clarified the favor of Allah Almighty upon him after the flight, as if he were saying: "You acted wrongly, but Allah did good to me by granting me wisdom (حكما) and making me one of the Messengers."
They differed regarding the meaning of wisdom (حكما). The closest interpretation is that it is something other than Prophethood, because the conjoined term is different from the term it is conjoined with. Prophethood is already understood from {and made me one of the Messengers}. Therefore, what is meant by wisdom is knowledge (العلم), which includes intellect (العقل), sound judgment (الرأي), and knowledge of the religion, which is Monotheism (التوحيد). This is the closest meaning because it is not permissible for Allah to send him except when he is complete in intellect, sound judgment, and knowledge of Monotheism.
His statement: {So my Lord granted me wisdom} (Page V24 P109) is like an explicit declaration that this wisdom is a creation of Allah Almighty.
The Mu'tazilites said that what is meant is the subtle favors (الألطاف), which is very weak, because subtle favors are bestowed upon everyone without deficiency or shortcoming. Therefore, specification (التخصيص) requires a purpose.
As for His statement: {And that is a favor you count against me—that you enslaved the Children of Israel}, this is the response to Pharaoh's statement: {Did I not raise you among us as a child?}
It is said, "You enslaved a man" (عبدت الرجل) and "You made him a slave" (أعبدته) if you took him as a slave.
If one asks: How can this be the answer, as there is no connection between the two matters? We reply that the connection can be explained in several ways:
Know that in the verse is evidence that the disbelief (kufr) of an unbeliever does not nullify the favor he bestowed upon someone who treated him well, nor does it nullify his beneficence, because Moses (peace be upon him) nullified it through another means, as we have explained.
The scholars differed on this:
The author of Al-Kashshaf said that the plural pronoun was used in {from you} (منكم) and {I feared you} (خفتكم) while the singular was used in {a favor} (ثمنها) and {that you enslaved} (أن عبدت) because the fear and flight were not solely due to him, but due to him and his councilors who were plotting to kill him, as evidenced by His statement: {Indeed, the chiefs are plotting to kill you} (Al-Qasas: 20). As for the expression of favor, it is solely from him, as is the enslavement.
If you ask: What is {that} (تلك) referring to, and what is the grammatical status of {that you enslaved} (أن عبدت)?
We reply: {That} (تلك) is a reference to an ambiguous, reprehensible matter whose nature is not known except through its explanation, which is {that you enslaved} (أن عبدت). Thus, {that you enslaved} is an appositive (عطف بيان). A similar example is His statement: {And We had informed him of that matter: that the roots of those people would be cut off by morning} (Al-Hijr: 66). The meaning is: "Your enslavement of the Children of Israel is a favor you count against me."
Al-Zajjaj said that 'an' (أن) could be in the accusative case (نصب), meaning: "It only became a favor upon me because you enslaved the Children of Israel," i.e., "If you had not done that, my own people would have sufficed me."
{He said, "The Lord of the heavens and the earth and whatever is between them, if you should be certain."} {He said to those around him, "Do you not listen?"} {He said, "Your Lord and the Lord of your fathers of old."} {He said, "Indeed, your messenger who has been sent to you is insane."} {He said, "The Lord of the east and the west and whatever is between them, if you should use reason."} {He said, "If you take a god other than me, I will surely make you one of the prisoners."} {He said, "Even if I brought you something clear?"} {He said, "Then bring it, if you should be among the truthful."}