ﱭ ﱮ ﱯ ﱰ ﱱ ﱲ ﱳ ﱴ ﱵ ﱶ ﱷ ﱸ ﱹ ﱺ
Those to whom We have given the Scripture recognize it as they recognize their [own] sons. Those who will lose themselves [in the Hereafter] do not believe.
ﱭ ﱮ ﱯ ﱰ ﱱ ﱲ ﱳ ﱴ ﱵ ﱶ ﱷ ﱸ ﱹ ﱺ
Those to whom We have given the Scripture recognize it as they recognize their [own] sons. Those who will lose themselves [in the Hereafter] do not believe.
Tafsir
Verse range: 6:20
It has been narrated to us in the first verse that the disbelievers asked the Jews and Christians about the description of the Prophet (peace be upon him). They denied that the Torah and the Gospel indicated his prophethood.
Thus, Allah the Exalted clarified in the first verse that Allah's testimony to the truth of his prophethood is sufficient for its establishment. Then, in this verse, He clarified that they lied in their claim that they do not know Muhammad (peace be upon him). This is because they knew him by his prophethood and message just as they know their own sons.
It is narrated that when the Messenger of Allah (peace be upon him) arrived in Medina, 'Umar said to 'Abdullah ibn Salam: "Allah revealed this verse to His Prophet. So what is this knowledge [they claim]?" He replied: "O 'Umar, I knew him among you when I saw him just as I know my son, and my knowledge of Muhammad is stronger than my knowledge of my son, because I do not know what the women have done [regarding him]. And I testify that he is the truth from Allah Almighty."
Know that the apparent meaning of this verse implies that their knowledge of the prophethood of Muhammad (peace be upon him) was like their knowledge of their sons. In this, there is a question: It could be asked: Is what is written in the Torah and the Gospel merely that a prophet will emerge at the end of time calling people to the true religion, or is what is written there this meaning along with the specification of the time, place, lineage, description, attributes, and appearance?
If it is the former, then that amount does not indicate that this person is Muhammad (peace be upon him). So how can it be correct to say that their knowledge of his prophethood is like their knowledge of their sons' prophethood?
If it is the latter, then all the Jews and Christians must have known with certainty from the Torah and the Gospel that Muhammad (peace be upon him) was a prophet from Allah Almighty. Lying about such a great collective group is not permissible, as we know with certainty that the Torah and the Gospel [contained these details] at the time the Messenger (peace be upon him) appeared.
Alternatively, it could be said that these details did not remain in the Torah and the Gospel at the time of his appearance because distortion had affected both scriptures before that. The first possibility is false because concealing such complete details in a book that reached the people of the East and the West is impossible. The second possibility is also false, because under this assumption, the Jews and Christians of that time would not have known the prophethood of Muhammad (peace be upon him) with the same certainty as they knew their sons. In that case, this argument falls apart.
The answer to the first point is: It is said that those referred to by "Those to whom We gave the Scripture" are the Jews and Christians. They were capable of reflection and deduction, and they had witnessed the appearance of miracles from the Messenger (peace be upon him). Through these miracles, they recognized that he was a messenger from Allah. The purpose of comparing one form of knowledge to the other is only this extent that we have mentioned.
As for His saying "those who have lost their own souls, they will not believe": There are two opinions regarding this:
**{And who is more unjust than one who invents a lie about Allah or denies His verses? Indeed, the wrongdoers will not succeed. * And [mention] the Day when We will gather them all, then say to those who associated partners with Allah, "Where are your partners whom you used to claim?"}**