Tafsir of Fatir 35:2

Surah Fatir 35:2

ﲪ ﲫ ﲬ ﲭ ﲮ ﲯ ﲰ ﲱ ﲲ ﲳ ﲴ ﲵ ﲶ ﲷ ﲸ ﲹ ﲺ ﲻ ﲼ ﲽ ﲾ

Whatever Allah grants to people of mercy - none can withhold it; and whatever He withholds - none can release it thereafter. And He is the Exalted in Might, the Wise.

Tafsir

Al-Kashshaf

Verse range: 35:2

Open in Qurani

Fatir: (2) "Whatever Allah opens..."

"Whatever Allah opens" The term "opening" (al-fatḥ) is used metaphorically for releasing and sending forth. Do you not see His saying: "none can release it after Him" in place of "none can open it for him"?

It means: whatever Allah releases of mercy—whether it be provision, rain, health, security, or any other of the countless varieties of His blessings—the use of the indefinite form for "mercy" (raḥmah) is for generalization and ambiguity. It is as if He said: "Whatever mercy it may be, whether heavenly or earthly, no one has the power to withhold or restrain it." Conversely, whatever Allah withholds, no one has the power to release.

If you ask: Why was the pronoun feminine at first, then masculine at the end, even though both refer to the noun containing the meaning of the conditional?

I say: These are two linguistic approaches: one based on the meaning and one based on the wording. The speaker has the choice between them. He used the feminine because of the meaning of "mercy," and he used the masculine because the word referred back to () has no feminine form. Furthermore, the first was explained by "mercy," so it was appropriate for the pronoun to follow the explanation, whereas the second was not explained, so it was left to the original state of masculinity. It has also been recited as: "none can release it (feminine)."

If you ask: The second [clause] must have an explanation, so what is it?

I say: It is possible that its explanation is the same as the first, but it was omitted because the first serves as an indication of it. It is also possible that it is absolute, covering everything He withholds of His wrath and mercy. The first was explained while the second was not, to signify that His mercy precedes His wrath.

If you ask: What do you say about one who interprets "mercy" as repentance (tawbah) and attributes this to Ibn Abbas (may Allah be pleased with them both)?

I say: If he intends by "repentance" the guidance toward it and the success in achieving it—which is what Ibn Abbas intended if he indeed said it—then it is acceptable. But if he intends that if Allah wills for the sinner to repent, he repents, and if He does not will it, he does not repent, then this is rejected. This is because Allah Almighty always wills repentance, and it is not permissible to say He wills it [only sometimes].

"After Him" Meaning: after He has withheld it. It is like the Almighty’s saying: "Who then will guide him after Allah?" (Al-Jathiya: 23) and "In what discourse after Allah..." (Al-Jathiya: 6)—meaning after His guidance and after His signs.

"And He is the Exalted in Might" The Overcomer, capable of releasing and withholding.

"The Wise" The One who releases and withholds only what wisdom dictates to be released or withheld.


"O mankind, remember the favor of Allah upon you. Is there any creator other than Allah who provides for you from the heaven and earth? There is no deity except Him, so how are you deluded?"